After several daze of consideration,
it occurs to me that the two statements
marked with %-% and %%-%%
contradict each other.
%-% seems to say that Christians imposed the Blue Laws.
%%-%% states plainly that those Blue-Law Imposers
were **not** Christians.
In the %%-%% case, the rule of those B-L I's
would be evidence that the America which accepted them
and their Blue Laws, was %%not%% a Christian Country
after all, but rather a country in which the majority
of voters, elected officials, and judges,
falsely pretended to be Christian.
Have I understood you correctly?
If so, are you sure that you want to say that?
Howard T. Map-addict
MAD-4A wrote:Howard T. Map-addict wrote:Do you wish to bring those Blue Laws back, MAD-4A?
No, they're a violation of free-will.
Just proof that %this is a Christian country% - or
we wouldn't have had them in the first place.
{snip intervening HTM statement/MAD-4A reply}
Howard T. Map-addict wrote:And what did those Blue Laws show
about Christian tolerance for others?
A group claiming to be Christian (like the other
groups claiming to be Christian & worship Jesus, a Jew,
but then spewing hate against Jews - which you know
about) %%they are no more Christian%% than Buddha was.
{snip to eopost - htm}