Jonathan_S wrote:1) He's was naturally conceived by the mother and father that he knew (of), and so the code was added later.
1a) Though it just as easily could have been during the pregnancy, meaning his tongue would naturally express the code as it grew.
Why would Manpower have allowed the mother and the father to conceive in the first place, let alone carry the pregnancy out? This makes little sense for a number of reasons: one probably expects that as a pleasure slave, his mother was sterile, because that's probably expected of such a "product" (it's probably true of the majority of slaves); given her harsh training, she probably wouldn't have sought sexual comfort with another slave either. Further, even if she did and she were somehow fertile, Manpower would likely not allow her to carry the baby to term.
The only other possibility is that the pairing of his mother and his father was by Manpower themselves, trying to get a proper genetic mixing. But that also fails, because we know they have breeding vats and
ex-utero gestation, so there's no need for her to have carried in him. Plus, if he were a new iteration of a genetic pairing, he wouldn't have been shipped as a family unit to be sold at less than 1 year old.
2) He was a 'test tube baby' in which case the source of his genes might or might not be primarily from the parents he knew (of), but this would have allowed the Manpower geneticists to slip in the tongue code along with any other desired tweaks; right at the beginning.
This is the most likely scenario. He was a run-of-the-mill male pleasure slave that happened to be in the care of two other slaves, one of whom we know to be a pleasure slave herself. Therefore, he'd have all the markings of a slave.